1. A muscle which flexes both hip and knee joints is-
a) gluteus maximus
b) biceps femoris
c) rectus femoris
d) sartorius
2. Which of the following structures is likely to get damaged when the semiflexed knee is suddenly rotated medially
a) anterior cruciate ligament
b) lateral meniscus
c) medial meniscus
d) posterior cruciate ligament
3. Gyrus occupying Broca's speech area is
a) superior frontal
b) middle frontal
c) inferior frontal
d) superior temporal
4. The nerve having Edinger Westphall nucleus as its component is
a) occulomotor
b) trochlear
c) trigeminal
d) abducent
5. Trendelenberg's test is positive in following conditions except
a) dislocation of hip
b) paralysis of gluteus maximus
c) paralysis of gluteus medius
d) fracture neck femur
6. In midbrain following structures are found at the level of occulomotor nerve nucleus
a) red nucleus
b) pretectal nucleus
c) substantia nigra
d) decussation of superior cerebellar peduncle
7. Pharyngotypanic tube connects the middle ear cavity with-
a) oropharynx
b) nasopharynx
c) nasal cavity
d) laryngo pharynx
8. Only abductor of vocal cords is
a) posterior cricoarytenoid
b) lateral crico arytenoid
c) inter arytenoid
d) cricothyroid
9. Sensory nerve for upper lip is-
a) facial
b) infra orbital
c) buccal
d) external nasal
10. Following are all the features of cerebellar lesions EXCEPT
a) dysdidochokinesis
b) nystagmus
c) rigidity of voluntary muscles
d) intention tremors
11. Structure passing deep to hyoglossus is-
a) hypoglossal nerve
b) myelohyoid nerve
c) submandibular duct
d) lingual artery
12. Following are the contents of inguinal canal in males except
a) ilio-inguinal nerve
b) spermatic cord
c) ilio hypogastric nerve
d) artery to vas deference
13. Conjoint tendon is formed by-
a) External and internal oblique
b) external oblique and transversus abdominis
c) internal oblique and transversus abdominis
d) internal oblique alone
14. Commonest type of inversion of testes is
a) superior
b) anterior
c) lateral
d) loop
15. Lining epithelium of lung alveolus is
a) simple columnar
b) simple cuboidal
c) simple squamous
d) pseudo stratified ciliated columnar
16. Commonest position of appendix is-
a) retrocaecal
b) sub caecal
c) pelvic
d) preileal
17. Nerve piercing and lying on psoas major is-
a) ilio inguinal
b) ilio hypogastric
c) femoral
d) genitofemoral
18. Transverse colon develops from-
a) foregut and midgut
b) midgut and hindgut
c) only hindgut
d) only midgut
19. Following are the boundaries of epiploeic foramen except
a) free edge of lesser omentum
b) quadrate lobe of liver
c) 1st part of duodenum
d) inferior vena cava
20. 2nd part of duodenum is developed from
a) foregut and midgut
b) midgut and hindgut
c) only forgut
d) only midgut
21. The spine of the scapula is continued laterally as the:
a) Coracoid porcess
b) Angle of the scapula
c) Acromion
d) Supraglenoid tubercle
22. Muscle attached to the coracoid process of scapula:
a) Biceps
b) Triceps
c) Pectoralis major
d) Deltoid
23. Vein which pierces the clavipectoral fascia:
a) Basilic
b) Lateral pectoral
c) Internal thoracic
d) Cephalic
24. The axillary vein:
a) Is lateral to the axillary artery
b) Is devoid of valves
c) Is directly continuous with the brachiocephalic vein
d) None of the above
25. Branch of the axillary artery:
a) Suprascapular
b) Transverse cervical
c) Lateral thoracic
d) Nutrient artery to humerus
26. Origin from lateral cord of brachial plexus:
a) Axillary nerve
b) Ulnar nerve
c) Lateral cutaneous nerve of forearm
d) Musculocutaneous nerve
27. The humerus may be rotated laterally by
a) Subscapulars
b) Supraspinatus
c) Pectoralis major
d) Deltoid
28. The muscle pair responsible for abducting the humerus to a right angle:
a) Deltoid and subscapularis
b) Deltoid and supraspinatus
c) Supraspinatus and subscapularis
d) Teres major and subscapularis
29. Abduction of the humerus is initiated by:
a) Supraspinatus
b) Infraspinatus
c) Deltoid
d) Trapezius
30. The muscle pair which assists in elevating the arm above the head:
a) Trapezius and pectoralis minor
b) Trapezius and serratus anterior
c) Rhomboid major and serratus anterior
d) Rhomboid major and levator scapulae
31. Muscle(s) supplied by the axillary nerve:
a) Latissimus dorsi
b) Deltoid
c) Infraspinatus
d) All of the above
32. The shoulder joint is weakest:
a) Above
b) Below
c) behind
d) laterally
33. Nerve(s) supplying shoulder joint:
a) Radial
b) Lateral pectoral
c) Axillary
d) All of the above
34. The nerve trunk most intimately related to the capsule of the shoulder joint is:
a) Radial
b) Axillary
c) Median
d) Ulnar
35. The following muscles belong to the 'rotator cuff' group except:
a) Subscapularis
b) Deltoid
c) Supraspinatus
d) Infraspinatus
36. Muscles having an intracapsular tendon:
a) Long head of biceps
b) Short head of biceps
c) Coracobrachialis
d) None of the above
37. In contact with medial wall of axilla:
a) Medial root of median nerve
b) Medial cord of brachial plexus
c) Nerve to serratus anterior
d) Medial pectoral nerve
38. Muscle inserted into medial lip of intertubercular sulcus:
a) Teres major
b) Teres minor
c) Pectoralis major
d) Latissimus dorsi
39. The apex of the cubital fossa is formed by:
a) Brachioradialis and pronator teres
b) Brachioradialis and biceps brachii
c) Biceps brachii and supinator
d) Brachioradialis and supinator
40. The lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm is derived from the ....... nerve:
a) Musculocutaneous
b) Median
c) Ulnar
d) Radial
41. Usual level of bifurcation of the brachial artery:
a) Middle of arm
b) Just above the elbow
c) Level of intercondylar line
d) Neck of radius
42. An important supinator muscle:
a) Biceps brachii
b) Brachialis
c) Triceps
d) Brachioradialis
43. Supplied by the ulnar nerve in the forearm:
a) Flexor carpi radialis
b) Flexor carpi ulnaris
c) Extensor carpi radialis
d) Flexor pollicis longus
44. Tendon directly medial to dorsal (Lister's) tubercle of radius:
a) Extensor pollicis brevis
b) Extensor pollicis longus
c) Extensor indicis
d) Extensor carpi radialis longus
45. Directly behind palmaris longus at the wrist:
a) Flexor carpi radialis
b) Flexor pollicis longus
c) Median nerve
d) Radial artery
46. The carpal bones articulating with the radius are:
a) Scaphoid and pisiform
b) Lunate and pisiform
c) Lunate and trapezium
d) Lunate and scaphoid
47. The triangular fibrocartilage:
a) Is attached to styloid process of radius
b) Separates synovial cavities of radiocarpal and inferior radio-ulnar joint
c) Articulates with lunate bone when wrist is adducted
d) Is stationary during pronation and supination
48. Artery usually palpable in the floor of the 'anatomical snuff box':
a) Princeps pollicis
b) Radialis pollicis
c) Radialis indicis
d) Radial
49. Liable to dislocation in a heavy fall on the hand:
a) Scaphoid
b) Lunate
c) Pisiform
d) Hamate
50. Digital synovial sheath(s) in communication with ulnar bursa:
a) Index
b) Middle finger
c) Ring finger
d) Little finger
51. The quadriceps femoris muscle:
a) Extends the knee
b) Flexes the knee
c) Rotates the knee
d) Abducts the knee
52. The femoral triangle is bounded by:
a) Inguinal ligament, pectineus, sartorius
b) Inguinal ligament, adductor longus, gracilis
c) Inguinal ligament, rectus femoris, sartorius
d) Inguinal ligament, adductor longus, sartorius
53. Immediately lateral to the lacunar ligament:
a) Femoral artery
b) Femoral vein
c) Femoral ring
d) Femoral nerve
54. The femoral canal contains:
a) The femoral nerve
b) The femoral artery
c) The femoral vein
d) Lymphatics
55. Artery in subsartorial canal:
a) Femoral
b) Profunda femoris
c) Perforating branch of profunda femoris
d) Medial circumflex femoral
56. The orifice in adductor magnus muscle transmits:
a) Femoral vessels
b) Femoral nerve
c) Saphenous nerve
d) Tibial nerve
57. A tributary of the long saphenous vein:
a) Short saphenous
b) Sural
c) Superficial epigastric
d) Popliteal
58. The greater sciatic foramen transmits the following structures, except:
a) Superior gluteal vessels
b) Posterior cutaneous nerve of thigh
c) Piriformis muscle
d) Obturator internus
59. The following muscles are inserted into the greater trochanter of femur, except:
a) Gluteus maximus
b) Gluteus medius
c) Gluteus minimus
d) Obturator externus
60. Muscle pair inserted into iliotibial tract:
a) Gluteus maximus and gluteus medius
b) Gluteus medius and gluteus minimus
c) Quadratus femoris and gluteus maximus
d) Tensor fasciae latae and gluteus maximus
61. To avoid the sciatic nerve, an injection into the buttock is best given into:
a) Upper and outer quadrant
b) Upper and inner quadrant
c) Lower and inner quadrant
d) Lower and outer quadrant
62. The sciatic nerve supplies the following muscles except:
a) Biceps femoris
b) Semitendinosus
c) Semimembranosus
d) Gluteus maximus
63. In the hip joint the synovial membrane does not line the:
a) Inner surface of the capsule
b) Ligament of the head of the femur
c) Articular cartilages
d) Acetabular pad of fat
64. Flexion of the hip joint is carried out by:
a) Iliopsoas
b) Vastus intermedius
c) Semimembranosus
d) Gluteus maximus
65. Bony prominences on which you kneel:
a) Femoral condyles
b) Tibial tuberosities
c) Tibial condyles
d) Intercondylar eminences of tibia
66. Muscle which flexes hip and knee:
a) Rectus femoris
b) Semitendinosus
c) Biceps femoris
d) Sartorius
67. The structure closest to the posterior ligament of the knee joint:
a) Popliteal artery
b) Popliteal vein
c) Tibial nerve
d) Sural nerve
68. The following bursa always communicates with the knee joint synovial cavity:
a) Suprapatellar
b) Prepatellar
c) Subcutaneous infrapatellar
d) Semimembranosus
69. The saphenous nerve:
a) Is a branch of the obturator
b) Gives a branch to the scrotum
c) Is closely related to the great saphenous vein in the upper thigh
d) Is cutaneous to the medial side of the foot
70. The cortex of the shaft of the tibia receives its main blood supply from:
a) Arteries in attached muscles
b) The collateral circulation at knee and ankle
c) The nutrient artery
d) The circulus vasculosus
71. The epiphysis of the upper end of tibia receives the attachment of:
a) Ligamentum patellae
b) Fibular collateral ligament
c) Sartorius
d) Popliteus
72. The superficial peroneal nerve supplies:
a) Peroneus longus and brevis
b) Peroneus tertius
c) Tibialis anterior
d) Flexor digitorum longus
73. Articulates with head of talus:
a) Navicular
b) Medial cuneiform
c) Intermediate cuneiform
d) Cuboid
74. The following bones enter the medial longitudinal arch of the foot except:
a) Talus
b) Calcaneus
c) Navicular
d) Cuboid
75. Structure closest to the skin of the sole:
a) Flexor digitorum brevis
b) Quadratus plantae
c) Plantar aponeurosis
d) Short plantar ligament
76. Sesamoid bones in the foot are found in:
a) Flexor hallucis longus
b) Flexor hallucis brevis
c) Flexor digitorum longus
d) Quadratus plantae
77. The talus provides origin for:
a) Extensor digitorum brevis
b) Quadratus plantae
c) Flexor hallucis longus
d) None of the above
78. The medial plantar nerve:
a) Supplies cutaneous branches to 3½ toes
b) Supplies motor branches to the interossei
c) Supplies adductor hallucis
d) Is homologous with the ulnar nerve in the hand
79. The 'keystone' of the medial longitudinal arch of the foot is:
a) Head of talus
b) Calcaneus
c) Navicular
d) Cuboid
80. The medial longitudinal arch of the foot is supported by:
a) Tibialis anterior
b) Flexor hallucis longus
c) The 'spring' ligament
d) All of the above
81. The sternum:
a) Is composed of four parts
b) Gives origin to pectoralis minor
c) Articulates with the upper ten costal cartilages
d) Makes a synovial joint with the clavicle
82. The sternal angle is at the level of the lower border of vertebra:
a) T1
b) T2
c) T3
d) T4
83. The number of pairs of costal cartilages usually attached to the sternum:
a) Six
b) Seven
c) Eight
d) Nine
84. The following ribs are typical except the:
a) First
b) Third
c) Fifth
d) Ninth
85. The intercostal nerves and vessels course between:
a) Skin and deep fascia
b) Deep fascia and external intercostals
c) External and internal intercostals
d) Internal and innermost intercostals
86. The aortic arch lies behind:
a) Manubrium sterni
b) Sternal angle
c) Body of sternum
d) Second right costal cartilage
87. The most superficial structure in the superior mediastinum:
a) Thymus
b) Arch of aorta
c) Left brachiocephalic vein
d) Brachiocephalic trunk
88. The brachiocephalic trunk divides into two arteries:
a) Right and left common carotid
b) Right common carotid and right subclavian
c) Left common carotid and left subclavian
d) Right and left subclavian
89. The azygos vein:
a) Carries blood from the oesophagus
b) Arches directly over the inferior lobe bronchus
c) Passes between the vagus and the trachea
d) Joins the superior vena cava behind the first costal cartilage
90. The number of broncho-pulmonary segments in the middle lobe of the right lung is:
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
91. Enclosed within the sheath of the rectus abdominis muscle
a) External oblique aponeurosis
b) Lineaalba
c) Linea semilunaris
d) None of the above
92. The lower six intercostal nerves supply:
a) Intercostal muscles only
b) intercostal and abdominal muscles
c) Intercostal and abdominal muscles and overlying skin
d) All of the above structures, together with the subjacent parietal peritoneum
93. The internal spermatic fascia is derived from the:
a) External oblique
b) Internal oblique
c) Transversus abdominis
d) Transversalis fascia
94. Anterior to the deep inguinal ring:
a) Internal oblique
b) Transversus abdominis
c) Conjoint tendon
d) Two of the above
95. Immediately medial to the deep inguinal ring:
a) Femoral artery
b) Linea alba
c) Spermatic cord
d) The inguinal (Hesselbach's) triangle
96. Immediately anterior to the conjoint tendon:
a) Internal oblique
b) Transversus abdominis
c) Superficial inguinal ring
d) Transversalis fascia
97. Nerve passing through the superficial inguinal ring:
a) Iliohypogastric
b) Ilioinguinal
c) Lateral cutaneous of thigh
d) Femoral
98. The most common position of the vermiform appendix is:
a) Retrocaecal
b) Retrocolic
c) Retroileal
d) Pelvic
99. The mesentery of the appendix has an attachment to the:
a) Caecum
b) Ascending colon
c) Ileum
d) Mesentery of ileum
100. Upper boundary of the hepatorenal (right subhepatic) pouch:
a) Duodenum
b) Right kidney
c) Diaphragm
d) Lower layer of coronary ligament