1. The anterior limit of the normal spleen is represented by the:
a) Posterior axillary line
b) Midaxillary line
c) Anterior axillary line
d) Mid-clavicular line
2. Vertebral level of origin of renal arteries:
a) L1
b) L3
c) L2
d) L4
3. Vertebral level of bifurcation of abdominal aorta:
a) L2
b) L3
c) L4
d) L5
4. A branch of the hepatic artery:
a) Cystic
b) Left gastric
c) Splenic
d) Gastrohepatic
5. A branch of the inferior mesenteric artery:
a) Right colic
b) Left colic
c) Middle colic
d) Splenic
6. Directly behind the duodenum:
a) Hepatic artery
b) Gastroduodenal artery
c) Right gastric artery
d) Superior mesenteric vein
7. The left renal vein:
a) Is crossed anteriorly by the superior mesenteric artery
b) Lies behind the left renal artery
c) Joins the portal vein behind the pancreas
d) Receives the inferior mesenteric vein
8. The greater omentum is attached to:
a) Liver and stomach
b) Stomach and jejunum
c) Jejunum and colon
d) Stomach and colon
9. The following structures are found within the lesser omentum, except:
a) Hepatic artery
b) Hepatic veins
c) Common bile duct
d) Vagal nerve fibres
10. The superior mesenteric vessels:
a) Are the vessels of the primitive foregut
b) Cross the third portion of duodenum
c) Artery arises from aorta at L3 level
d) Vein drains into the inferior vena cava
11. The prostate:
a) Is the size of an orange
b) Surrounds the membranous urethra
c) Is pierced by the ductus (vas) deferens
d) None of the above
12. The middle lobe of prostate is the part between:
a) Rectum and prostatic urethra
b) Ejaculatory ducts and rectum
c) Ejaculatory ducts and prostatic urethra
d) Pubis and prostatic urethra
13. The ductus (vas) deferens is connected to the prostatic urethra by:
a) The prostatic utricle
b) Gartner's duct
c) The ejaculatory duct
d) The urachus
14. The anal valves are at the level of the:
a) Anorectal junction
b) Anal margin
c) White line of Hilton
d) Pectinate line
15. The uterine artery:
a) Usually arises from the internal iliac artery
b) Anastomoses with the ovarian artery
c) Gives branches to the vagina
d) All of the above
16. The internal os of the uterus marks the junction of:
a) Uterine tube and peritoneal cavity
b) Uterine tube and fundus of uterus
c) Fundus and body of uterus
d) Body and cervix of uterus
17. The lateral fornix of the vagina is most closely related to the:
a) Urethra
b) Ureter
c) Middle rectal artery
d) Uterine artery
18. The following structures occupy the male superficial perineal pouch, except:
a) Corpora cavernosa
b) Corpus spongiosum
c) Posterior scrotal nerves and vessels
d) Bulbo-urethral glands
19. The inferior rectal nerve supplies:
a) External anal sphincter
b) Internal anal sphincter
c) Rectal mucous membrane
d) Muscle of rectal ampulla
20. The ischiorectal fossa is bounded directly by:
a) The rectum and ischium
b) Obturator internus fascia and rectum
c) Levator ani and obturator internus fascia
d) Ischium and sacrum
21. In the carpal tunnel:
a) Ulnar nerve
b) Median nerve
c) Radial nerve
d) Ulnar artery
22. Carpal bones visible in radiograph of newborn:
a) None
b) Two
c) Four
d) Six
23. Metacarpal bone with epiphysis at proximal end:
a) First
b) Second
c) Third
d) Fourth
24. Abduction of the thumb carries it:
a) Forwards away from the palm
b) Backwards to the side of the palm
c) Towards the index finger
d) Laterally, away from the index finger
25. Inversion of the foot is performed by:
a) Peroneus longus and brevis
b) Peroneus longus and tibialis posterior
c) Tibialis anterior and tibialis posterior
d) None of the above muscle pairs
26. The plantar nerves and vessels lie between:
a) Plantar aponeurosis and the first muscle layer
b) First and second muscle layers
c) Second and third muscle layers
d) Third and fourth muscle layers
27. The cuboid is grooved by the tendon of:
a) Peroneus longus
b) Peroneus brevis
c) Peroneus tertius
d) Tibialis posterior
28. The ankle joint has greatest freedom of movement when:
a) It is plantar flexed
b) It is dorsi-flexed
c) The foot is inverted
d) The foot is everted
29. Number of broncho-pulmonary segments in the right lower lobe of lung:
a) One
b) Three
c) Five
d) Seven
30. The number of pulmonary veins entering the left atrium is normally:
a) One
b) Two
c) Four
d) Six
31. The bundle of His usually receives its blood supply from the:
a) Right coronary artery
b) Interventricular branch of the left coronary artery
c) Right marginal artery
d) Left marginal artery
32. Location of sphincter urethrae:
a) Superficial perineal pouch
b) Deep perineal pouch
c) Ischiorectal fossa
d) Above the prostate gland
33. The internal iliac lymph nodes receive lymph from:
a) Body of uterus
b) Cervix of uterus
c) Prostate
d) All of the above
34. The superficial inguinal lymph nodes receive lymph from:
a) Anal canal
b) Vagina
c) Rectum
d) All of the above
35. Nodes receiving lymph from the testis:
a) External iliac
b) Internal iliac
c) Superficial inguinal
d) Para-aortic
36. Directly behind isthmus of thyroid gland:
a) Sternohyoid muscle
b) Thyrohyoid muscle
c) Oesophagus
d) Trachea
37. The common carotid artery ends at the level of the:
a) Sternoclavicular joint
b) Upper border of cricoid cartilage
c) Upper border of thyroid cartilage
d) Neck of mandible
38. The following structures occupy the carotid sheath, except:
a) Common carotid artery
b) Internal carotid artery
c) Vagus nerve
d) Sympathetic trunk
39. Principal adductor of vocal folds:
a) Lateral cricoarytenoid
b) Posterior cricoarytenoid
c) Aryepiglottic muscle
d) Cricothyroid
40. Section of the inferior (recurrent) laryngeal nerve would paralyse the intrinsic laryngeal muscles, except:
a) Cricothyroid
b) Posterior cricoarytenoid
c) Vocalis
d) Lateral cricoarytenoid
41. Directly behind isthmus of thyroid gland:
a) Sternohyoid muscle
b) Thyrohyoid muscle
c) Oesophagus
d) Trachea
42. The common carotid artery ends at the level of the:
a) Sternoclavicular joint
b) Upper border of cricoid cartilage
c) Upper border of thyroid cartilage
d) Lower border of mandible
43. The following structures occupy the carotid sheath, except:
a) Common carotid artery
b) Internal carotid artery
c) Vagus nerve
d) Sympathetic trunk
44. Principal adductor of vocal folds:
a) Lateral cricoarytenoid
b) Posterior cricoarytenoid
c) Aryepiglottic muscle
d) Cricothyroid
45. Section of the inferior (recurrent) laryngeal nerve would
paralyse the intrinsic laryngeal muscles, except:
a) Cricothyroid
b) Posterior cricoarytenoid
c) Vocalis
d) Lateral cricoarytenoid
46. The thyroid gland is enveloped in:
a) Investing fascia of the neck
b) Prevertebral fascia
c) Pretracheal fascia
d) Superficial fascia
47. The cricoid cartilage is at the vertebral level of:
a) C2
b) C4
c) C6
d) T1
48. Anterior relation(s) of scalenus anterior:
a) Subclavian vein
b) Phrenic nerve
c) Brachial plexus
d) Two of the above
49. The intermediate tendon of the omohyoid muscle is
anchored by a fascial sling to the:
a) Hyoid bone
b) Thyroid cartilage
c) Clavicle
d) Sternum
50. The cervical plexus is formed by the ventral rami of:
a) C1,C2,C3
b) C1, C2
c) C1,C2,C3,C4
d) C3, C4
51. The roots of the brachial plexus pass between:
a) Scalenus anterior and sternomastoid
b) Scalenus anterior and clavicle
c) Scalenus anterior and scalenus medius
d) Scalenus medius and scalenus posterior
52. Muscle attached to the first rib between subclavian vein
artery:
a) Subclavius
b) Scalenus medius
c) Scalenus anterior
d) Scalenus posterior
53. The larger blood vessels of the scalp run in the:
a) Skin
b) Subcutaneous tissue
c) Epicranial aponeurosis
d) Subaponeurotic tissue
54. The plane of movement of the scalp is between:
a) Skin and epicranial aponeurosis
b) Epicranial aponeurosis (galea aponeurotica) and
pericranium
c) Skin and subcutaneous fat
d) Pericranium and skull
55. The main sensory nerve to the back of the head:
a) Greater auricular
b) Greater occipital
c) Posterior auricular
d) Lesser occipital
56. The zygomatic arch gives origin to:
a) Masseter
b) Temporalis
c) Buccinator
d) Platysma
57. The main sensory nerve to the upper lip is the:
a) Facial
b) Infraorbital
c) Buccal of mandibular
d) External nasal
58. The main sensory nerve to the lower lip is the:
a) Buccal
b) Cervical of facial
c) Mental
d) Submandibular
59. The most horizontal fibres of temporalis muscle are:
a) Deep
b) Superficial
c) Posterior
d) Middle
60. A muscle which elevates and retracts the mandible:
a) Masseter
b) Temporalis
c) Medial pterygoid
d) Lateral pterygoid
61. A muscle attached to the coronoid process of mandible:
a) Buccinator
b) Lateral pterygoid
c) Medial pterygoid
d) Temporalis
62. Nerve from which the parasympathetic fibres for the parotid
gland take origin:
a) Vagus
b) Facia
c) Glossopharyngeal
d) Trigeminal
63. The buccal branch of the mandibular nerve supplies:
a) Buccinator muscle
b) Skin and mucous membrane of cheek
c) Only skin of cheek
d) Only mucous membrane of cheek
64. The following muscle assists the tongue in keeping food
between the upper and lower molar teeth during
mastication:
a) Masseter
b) Temporalis
c) Orbicularis oris
d) Buccinator
65. A structure passing deep to the hyoglossus muscle:
a) Hypoglossal nerve
b) Mylohyloid nerve
c) Submandibular duct
d) None of the above
66. The parotid duct opens into the oral cavity opposite the
crown of the:
a) Upper first premolar tooth
b) Upper second molar
c) Lower first premolar
d) Upper third molar
67. The sublingual papilla:
a) Is a swelling on the lingual nerve
b) Is caused by the loop of the lingual artery
c) Is a swelling caused by the sublingual gland
d) Marks the opening of the submandibular duct
68. The permanent dentition in each quadrant of the mouth
comprises:
a) Two incisors, canine, two premolars, two molars
b) One incisor, canine, two premolars, three molars
c) Two incisors, canine, two premolars, three molars
d) One incisor, canine, three premolars, three molars
69. The deciduous dentition in each quadrant of the mouth
comprises:
a) Two incisors, canine, two molars
b) One incisor, canine, three molars
c) One incisor, canine, one premolar, two molars
d) Two incisors, canine, two premolars, two molars
70. The first permanent tooth to erupt is the:
a) Lateral incisor
b) Canine
c) First premolar
d) First molar
71. The first deciduous tooth to erupt is usually the:
a) Central incisor
b) Canine
c) First premolar
d) First molar
72. The lingual tonsil is confined to the:
a) Posterior one-third of the tongue
b) Anterior one-third of the tongue
c) Sulcus terminalis
d) Ventral surface of the tongue
73. The bony part of the nasal septum contains:
a) Perpendicular plate of ethmoid and vomer
b) Perpendicular plate of palatine and vomer
c) Perpendicular plate of palatine, vomer, and
perpendicular plate of ethmoid
d) Perpendicular plate of palatine, vomer, palatine
crest of maxilla
74. In the 'motor nerve' entering a muscle, sensory fibres make
up the following proportion:
a) None
b) 20 per cent
c) 40 per cent
d) 75 per cent
75. Pacinian corpuscles are numerous in:
a) The dermis of the skin
b) Periarticular tissues
c) Bone marrow
d) Muscle
76. The rate of regeneration of peripheral nerves following
injury is:
a) 1 -3 micra per day
b) 1 -3 mm per hour
c) 1 -3 mm per day
d) 1 -3 mm per week
77. In the postnatal period the greatest growth in the grey matter
of the CNS is of:
a) Nerve cell numbers
b) Length of axonal processes
c) Dendritic trees
d) Size of perikarya
78. The cells of the posterior grey horn of the spinal cord are
arranged:
a) In clusters
b) In laminae from apex to base
c) In laminae from medial to lateral side
d) Diffusely
79. Grossly the spinal cord presents two swellings:
a) Cervical and thoracic
b) Cervical and lumbar
c) Thoracic and lumbar
d) Thoracic and sacral
80. The internal vertebral venous plexus occupies:
a) The extradural space
b) The subdural space
c) The subarachnoid space
d) The spinal cord
81. The internal vertebral venous plexus communicates with:
a) Vertebral bone marrow
b) Segmental veins
c) Intracranial sinuses
d) All the above
82. Inferior cerebral veins terminate in the:
a) Transverse sinus
b) Cavernous sinus
c) Sigmoid sinus
d) Great cerebral vein
83. The subarachnoid space reaches to vertebral level:
a) T12 or L1
b) L1 or L2
c) L4 or L5
d) S2
84. A disc prolapse at L5 level, in the usual position of extrusion,
may compress:
a) L3,4 and 5 nerve roots
b) L4 roots
c) L5 roots
d) S1 roots
85. In eliciting a tendon reflex, the sequence of neurones
activated is:
a) Tendon afferent, internuncial, alpha efferent
b) Spindle afferent, internuncial, alpha efferent
c) Spindle afferent, internuncial, gamma efferent
d) Spindle afferent, alpha efferent
86. Commonest level of termination of the adult spinal cord:
a) T12-L1 disc
b) L1-L2 disc
c) L3-L4 disc
d) L5-S1 disc
87. The cell in the CNS most like the Schwann cell in function is
the:
a) Fibrous astrocyte
b) Protoplasmic astrocyte
c) Microglial cell
d) Oligodendrocyte
88. In the CNS, portions of first order sensory neurones are
found:
a) In the posterior white columns
b) In the posterolateral tract of Lissauer
c) In the lateral white columns
d) Two of the above
89. The sacral segments of the spinal cord may be crushed by
fracture of:
a) The first lumbar vertebra
b) The third lumbar vertebra
c) The fifth lumbar vertebra
d) The first and second sacral vertebrae
90. Axons from the nucleus ambiguus innervate muscles of the:
a) Eye
b) Tongue
c) Larynx
d) Ear
91. A classical sign of cerebellar disease:
a) Rigidity
b) Short, shuffling gait
c) Loss of 'joint sense'
d) Intention tremor
92. Tract which is small or absent in humans:
a) Rubrospinal
b) Tectospinal
c) Vestibulospinal
d) Olivospinal
93. A midline nucleus in the medulla oblongata:
a) Hypoglossal nucleus
b) Nucleus ambiguus
c) Dorsal vagal nucleus
d) Nucleus raphe magnus
94. The cerebellum sends efferent fibres to each of the following,
except:
a) The red nucleus of the opposite side
b) The thalamus of the opposite side
c) Reticular formation
d) The substantia nigra
95. The structure closest to the crus cerebri is the:
a) Substantia nigra
b) Red nucleus
c) Medial lemniscus
d) Opposite crus
96. The cerebral aqueduct (of Sylvius) connects:
a) The lateral ventricles
b) Lateral and third ventricles
c) Third and fourth ventricles
d) Fourth ventricle and subarachnoid space
97. The following structure occupies the floor of the temporal
horn of the lateral ventricle:
a) Stria vascularis
b) Calcaravis
c) Diagonal band of Broca
d) Hippocampus
98. The interventricular foramen of Monro connects:
a) The two lateral ventricles
b) Lateral ventricle with third ventricle
c) Third and fourth ventricles
d) Fourth ventricle with subarachnoid space
99. Betz cells constitute the following percentage of the
corticospinal tract neurones:
a) 0
b) 3
c) 10
d) 50
100. The cms cerebri contains:
a) Medial lemniscus
b) Spinothalamic tract
c) Temporopontine fibres
d) Lateral lemniscus