1. The concept of clinicopathologic correlation (CPC) by study of morbid anatomy was introduced by:
a) Hippocrates
b) Virchow
c) John Hunter
d) Morgagni
2. ABO human blood group system was first described by:
a) Edward Jenner
b) Karl Landsteiner
c) Hippocrates
d) Laennec
3. Exact number of human chromosomes was first described in the year:
a) 1947
b) 1950
c) 1953
d) 1956
4. Structure of DNA of the cell was described by:
a) Watson and Crick
b) Tijo and Levan
c) Ruska and Lorries
d) Barbara McClintock
5. Which of the following was discovered first in human beings
a) Number of chromosomes
b) Structure of DNA
c) In situ hybridisation
d) Polymerase chain reaction
6. Father of cellular pathology is:
a) Carl Rokitansky
b) FT Schwann
c) G. Morgagni
d) Rudolf Virchow
7. Humans genome consists of following approximate number of genes:
a) 20,000
b) 30,000
c) 50,000
d) 100,000
8. Stem cell research consists of:
a) Cadaver cells grown in vitro
b) Plant cells grown in vitro
c) Human cells grown in vitro
d) Synonymous with PCR
9. Human genome project was completed in:
a) 2001
b) 2002
c) 2003
d) 2004
10. Frozen section is employed for the following purposes except:
a) Fat demonstration
b) Amyloid
c) Rapid diagnosis
d) Enzymes
11. Tissues for electron microscopy are fixed in:
a) Carnoy’s fixative
b) 10% buffered formalin
c) 4% glutaraldehyde
d) Saline
12. The DNA molecule is a double helical strand having the following nucleotide bases:
a) Cytosine, thymine, alanine, guanine
b) Adenine, guanine, valine, thymine
c) Cytosine, lysine, adenine, guanine
d) Adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine
13. Actin and myosin proteins are found in:
a) Microtubules
b) Microfilaments
c) Intermediate filaments
d) Ribosomes
14. The major mechanism of damage to plasma membrane in ischaemia is:
a) Reduced intracellular pH
b) Increased intracellular accumulation of sodium
c) Increased Ca++ ions in the cytosol
d) Reduced aerobic respiration
15. In ischaemia-reperfusion cell injury, there are:
a) Increased Ca++ ions in the extracellular fluid
b) Increased Ca++ ions in the cytosol
c) Ca++ ions are equal in the cytosol and in extracellular fluid
d) Ca++ ion equilibrium is unaffected
16. Out of various free radical species, the following radical is most reactive:
a) Superoxide (O2’)
b) Hydrogen peroxide (H2O2)
c) Hydroxyl (OH–)
d) Nitric oxide (NO)
17. In fatty liver due to chronic alcoholism, the following mechanisms are involved except:
a) Increased free fatty acid synthesis
b) Decreased triglyceride utilization
c) Increased α-glycerophosphate
d) Block in lipoprotein excretion
18. The following pigments are stainable by Prussian blue reaction except:
a) Haemosiderin
b) Ferritin
c) Haemochromatosis
d) Haematin
19. Enzymatic digestion is the predominant event in the following type of necrosis:
a) Coagulative necrosis
b) Liquefactive necrosis
c) Caseous necrosis
d) Fat necrosis
20. Mechanism of mammalian apoptosis involves the most important role of the following protein:
a) Receptor for TNF
b) BCL-2
c) TP53
d) CED-9
21. Apoptosis has the following features except:
a) There is cell shrinkage in apoptosis
b) There are no acute inflammatory cells surrounding apoptosis
c) There may be single cell loss or affect clusters of cells
d) Apoptosis is seen in pathologic processes only
22. Diabetic foot is an example of:
a) Dry gangrene
b) Gas gangrene
c) Wet gangrene
d) Necrotising inflammation
23. Idiopathic calcinosis cutis is an example of:
a) Necrotising inflammation
b) Dystrophic calcification
c) Metastatic calcification
d) Calcified thrombi in veins
24. In atrophy, the cells are:
a) Shrunken cells
b) Dead cells
c) Irreversibly injured cells
d) Reversibly injured cells
25. For metaplasia the following holds true:
a) It is a disordered growth
b) It affects only epithelial tissues
c) It is a reversible change
d) It is an irreversible and progressive change
26. Immune system in the body is activated by:
a) Cell adhesion molecules
b) Cytokines
c) G-protein receptors
d) Ion channels
27. In cell cycle, signal transduction system is activated by:
a) G protein receptors
b) Selectins
c) Cadherins
d) Integrins
28. Which of the following genes is proapoptotic:
a) p53
b) Bcl-2
c) RB
d) Bax
29. Annexin V is used as a marker for:
a) Necrosis
b) Fatty change
c) Apoptosis
d) Gangrene
30. Enzyme which prevents ageing is:
a) Catalase
b) Superoxide dismutase
c) Metalloproteinase
d) Telomerase
31. Transplantation antigens are located on portion of:
a) Chromosome 1
b) Chromosome 6
c) Chromosome 9
d) Chromosome 22
32. Class I HLA antigens are located on:
a) All nucleated cells of the body
b) B and T lymphocytes
c) Macrophages
d) Complement system
33. HIV contaminated waste products can be decontaminated by the following agents except:
a) Sodium hypochlorite
b) Formaldehyde
c) Methanol
d) Glutaraldehyde
34. CD4 bearing subpopulation of macrophages are attacked by HIV and cause the following except:
a) Cytopathic effects
b) Act as reservoir of HIV infection
c) Act as source of infection in nervous system
d) Defects in CD4+ T lymphocytes
35. In autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, the following type of immunologic tissue injury is involved:
a) Type I (anaphylactic)
b) Type II (cytotoxic)
c) Type III (immune complex)
d) Type IV (cell mediated)
36. Out of various antinuclear antibodies, pathognomonic of SLE is:
a) Antibody to single-stranded DNA
b) Antibody to double-stranded DNA
c) Antibody to histones
d) Antibody to nucleolar antigen
37. The most common form of amyloid in developing countries is:
a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) Hereditary
d) Localised
38. In cases of renal failure on long-term haemodialysis, there is development of following type of amyloid:
a) Amyloid light chain (AL)
b) Amyloid-associated protein (AA)
c) Amyloid β2 microglobulin (Aβ2m)
d) β amyloid protein (Aβ)
39. Cardiac amyloidosis often produces:
a) Dilated cardiomyopathy
b) Constrictive cardiomyopathy
c) Restrictive cardiomyopathy
d) Ischaemic cardiomyopathy
40. In senile cardiac amyloidosis, the biochemical form of amyloid is:
a) AL
b) AA
c) Aβ2M
d) ATTR
41. In Alzheimer’s disease, cerebral plaques consist of:
a) ATTR protein
b) Aβ2M protein
c) Prion protein
d) Aβ protein
42. Amyloid enhancing factor (AEF) plays a significant role in:
a) Primary amyloid
b) Secondary amyloid
c) Senile cerebral amyloid
d) Haemodialysis-associated amyloid
43. Non-fibrillar amyloid components include all except:
a) Amyloid P component
b) Apolipoprotein E
c) Protein X
d) Cystatin
44. Grave’s disease is a type of:
a) Type I reaction
b) Type II reaction
c) Type III reaction
d) Type IV reaction
45. Which of the following is heredo-familial form of amyloidosis?
a) Polyneuropathic amyloidosis
b) Cardiac amyloidosis
c) Cerebral amyloidosis
d) Endocrine amyloidosis
46. CD4 T cell count in crisis phase of HIV according to revised HIV/AIDS classification is:
a) < 100/ microlitre
b) < 200/ microlitre
c) < 250/ microlitre
d) < 500/ microlitre
47. Test useful for detection of HIV during window period:
a) ELISA
b) Western blot
c) CD4+ cell count
d) p24 antigen capture assay
48. Haematoxylin body represents:
a) Cytosolic components
b) RNA
c) Nuclear chromatin material
d) Cell membrane components
49. For counting of CD4 + T cells in AIDS, the following technique is often employed:
a) In situ hybridisation
b) Polymerase chain reaction
c) Flow cytometry
d) Electron microscopy
50. For karyotyping, the dividing cells are arrested by addition of colchicine in the following mitotic phase:
a) Prophase
b) Metaphase
c) Anaphase
d) Telophase