1. According to Pasteur statements which one of the following is true
a) Living organisms discriminate between stereoisomers
b) Fermentation is a aerobic process
c) Living organisms doesn’t discriminate between stereoisomers
d) Both a and b
2. “I found floating therin earthly particles,some green streaks, spirally wound serpent-wise, and orderly arranged, the whole circumstance of each of these streaks was abut the thickness of a hair on one’s head”…. These words are of
a) Leeuwenhoek
b) A. Jenner
c) Pasteur
d) Koch
3. The principle light- trapping pigment molecule in plants, Algae, and cyanobacteria is
a) Chlorophyll a
b) Chlorophyll b
c) Porphyrin
d) Rhodapsin
4. Who demonstrated that open tubes of broth remained free of bacteria when air was free of dust.
a) Abbc Spallanzani
b) John Tyndall
c) Francisco Redi
d) Pasteur
5. During Bio Geo chemical cycle some amount of elemental carbon was utilized by the microorganisms. The phenomenon is called as
a) Dissimilation
b) Immobilization
c) Decomposition
d) Neutralization
6. Reverse isolation would be appropriate for
a) a patient with tuberculosis
b) a patient who has had minor surgery
c) a patient with glaucoma
d) a patient with leukemia
7. The symptome “ general feeling of illness and discomfort “ is called
a) Cystitis
b) Malaise
c) Anaphylactic shock
d) Arthritis
8. On soybean which of the following forms symbiotism
a) Azatobactor paspali
b) Rhizobium
c) Bradyrhizobium
d) Nostoc
9. Who provide the evidence that bacteriophage nucleic acid but not protein enters the host cell during infection
a) Alfred D.Hershey & Leonard Tatum in 1951.
b) Alfred D.Hershey & Zindar Lederberg in 1951.
c) Alfred D.Hershey & Martha Chase in 1952.
d) Alfred D.Hershey & Macleod in 1952.
10. Spirulina belongs to
a) Xanthophyceae
b) Cyanophyceae
c) Rhodophyceae
d) Pheophyceae
11. The first antibody to contact invading microorganisms was
a) lgG
b) IgM
c) IgA
d) IgD
12. The light emitted by luminescent bacteria is mediated by the enzyme
a) Coenzyme Q
b) Luciferase
c) Lactose dehydrogenase
d) Carboxylase reductase
13. Pick out the vector using in human Genome project
a) Phagemid vector
b) Yeast artificial chromosomes
c) Cosmid vectors
d) Yeast episomal plasmids
14. Salt and sugar preserve foods because they
a) Make them acid
b) Produce a hypotonic environment
c) Deplete nutrients
d) Produce a hypertonic environment
15. In a fluorescent microscope the objective lens is made of
a) Glass
b) Quartz
c) Polythene
d) None of these
16. Fixation of atmospheric nitrogen is by means of
a) Biological process
b) Lightining
c) Ultraviolet light
d) All of the above
17. Which one of the following fungi is the most serious threat in a bone marrow transplant unit?
a) Candida albicans
b) Aspergillus
c) Blastomyces
d) Cryptococus
18. Direct microscopic count can be done with the aid of
a) Neuberg chamber
b) Anaerobic chamber
c) Mineral oil
d) Olive oil
19. The image obtained in a compound microscope is
a) Real
b) Virtual
c) Real inverted
d) Virtual inverted
20. Enzymes responsible for alcoholic fermentation
a) Ketolase
b) Zymase
c) Peroxidase
d) Oxidase
21. Which type of spores are produced sexually?
a) Conidia
b) Sporangiospores
c) Ascospores
d) None of these
22. Bacterial transformation was discovered by
a) Ederberg and Tatum
b) Beadle and Tatum
c) Griffith
d) None of these
23. Father of microbiology is
a) Louis Pasteur
b) Lister
c) A.V. Leeuwenhock
d) Robert Koch
24. The antiseptic method was first demonstrated by
a) Lwanowski
b) Lord Lister
c) Edward Jenner
d) Beijerinck
25. Small pox vaccine was first discovered by
a) Robert Koch
b) Louis Pasteur
c) Lister
d) Edward Jenner
26. Compound microscope was discovered by
a) Antony von
b) Pasteur
c) Johnsen & Hans
d) None of these
27. The term mutation was coined by
a) Pasteur
b) Darwin
c) Hugo devries
d) Lamark
28. Father of Medical Microbiology is
a) Pasteur
b) Jenner
c) Koch
d) A.L.Hock
29. Disease that affects many people at different countries is termed as
a) Sporadic
b) Pandemic
c) Epidemic
d) Endemic
30. Prophylaxis of cholera is
a) Protected water supply
b) Environmental sanitation
c) Immunization with killed vaccines
d) All of these
31. In electron microscope, what material is used as an objective lense?
a) Magnetic coils
b) Superfine glass
c) Aluminium foils
d) Electrons
32. The main feature of prokaryotic organism is
a) Absence of locomotion
b) Absence of nuclear envelope
c) Absence of nuclear material
d) Absence of protein synthesis
33. The stalked particles on the cristae of mitochondria are called
a) Glyoxysomes
b) Spherosomes
c) Oxysomes
d) Peroxisomes
34. Kuru disease in Humans is caused by
a) Bacteria
b) Viroides
c) Prions
d) Mycoplasma
35. Antiseptic methods were first introduced by
a) Lord Lister
b) Iwanowski
c) Beijernick
d) Edward Jenner
36. A mutation that produces termination codon is
a) Mis-sense mutation
b) Neutral mutation
c) Non-sense mutation
d) Reverse mutation
37. During conjunction the genetic material will be transferred through
a) Cell wall
b) Medium
c) Pili
d) Capsule
38. Antiseptic surgery was discovered by
a) Ernest Abbe
b) Joseph Lister
c) Pasteur
d) Beijerink
39. Tuberculosis is a
a) Water borne disease
b) Air borne disease
c) Food borne disease
d) Atthropod borne disease
40. Phagocytic phenomenon was discovered by
a) Louis Pasteur
b) Alexander Fleming
c) Metchnikof
d) Robert Koch
41. Meosomes are also known as
a) Mitochondria
b) Endoplasmic reticulum
c) Plasmids
d) Chondroids
42. Hybridoma technique was first discovered by.
a) Robert Koch
b) Kohler and Milstein
c) ‘D’ Herelle
d) Land Steiner
43. The minimum number of bacteria required to produce clinical evidence of death in a susceptible animal under standard condition is called
a) LD50
b) ID
c) MLD
d) All of these
44. In Electron Microscope source of electrons is from
a) Mercury lamp
b) Tungsten metal
c) both a and b
d) None of these
45. Griffith (1928) reported the phenomenon of transformation first in
a) Pneumococci
b) Bacillus species
c) H. influenzae
d) E.coli
46. The resolution power of the compound microscope is
a) 0.2 micron
b) 0.2 millimeter
c) 0.2 Angstrom units
d) 0.2 centimeter
47. Monoclonal antibodies are associated with the name of
a) Burnet
b) Medwar
c) Milstein kohler
d) Owen
48. The capacity of a given strain of microbial species to produce disease is known as
a) Pathogen
b) Virulence
c) Infection
d) None of these
49. Lederberg and Tatum (1946) described the phenomena of
a) Conjunction
b) Transformation
c) Mutation
d) Plasmids
50. Hanging drop method for motility study was first introduced by
a) Robert Koch
b) Louis Pasteur
c) Jenner
d) Leeuwenhock
51. Electron microscope gives magnification upto
a) 100 X
b) 2000 X
c) 50,000 X
d) 2,00,000 X
52. Term vaccine was coined by
a) Robert Koch
b) Pasteur
c) Needham
d) None of these
53. The inventor of Microscope is
a) Antony von
b) Galileo
c) Pasteur
d) Koch
54. First Pasteur conducted fermentation experiments in
a) Milk
b) Food material
c) Fruit juices
d) Both a and c
55. The role of phagocytosis was discovered by
a) Paul Ehrlich
b) Joseph lister
c) Elie Metchikoff
d) Pasteur
56. Modern concepts of chemotherapy was proposed by
a) Paul Ehrlich
b) Joseph Lister
c) Elie Metchnikoff
d) None of these
57. L – forms are discovered by
a) Klein Berger
b) Louis Pasteur
c) Robert Koch
d) Antony von Leeuwenhock
58. The causative organism of rocky mountain spotted fever was first described by
a) Howard Ricketts
b) da Rocha-lima
c) Both a and b
d) Robert Koch
59. The term bacteriophage was coined by
a) Jwanosky
b) F.W. Twort
c) Beijernick
d) De’Herelle
60. Viral infection of bacteria was discovered by
a) De’Herelle
b) F.W. Twort
c) Beijernick
d) Jwanoksy
61. Eye cannot resolve any image less than
a) 1ìm
b) 2ìm
c) 7ìm
d) 5ìm
62. Compound Microscope was discovered by
a) A.V. Lewenhoek
b) Janssen and Hans
c) Pasteur
d) None of these
63. Electron Microscope was discovered by
a) Prof. Fritz
b) Janssen and Hans
c) Knoll and Ruska
d) None of these
64. Condensation of light in light Microscope is by
a) Objective
b) Condensor
c) Ocular
d) All of these
65. Magnification range of light microscope is
a) 1000x – 5000x
b) 1000x – 2000x
c) 500x – 1000x
d) None of these
66. Light gathering capacity of Microscope is called
a) Numerical aperture
b) Angular aperture
c) Both a and b
d) None of these
67. If 10x and 40x objectives are used (air is the medium), the numerical aperture is
a) 1.5
b) 2.0
c) 1.8
d) 1.0
68. The ability of Microscope to distinguish two objects into two separate objects, is called
a) Resolving power
b) Wave length
c) N.A.
d) None of these
69. Limit of resolution of compound microscope is
a) 0.018 Ao
b) 0.1 mm
c) 5 ìm
d) 1 mm
70. Source of light in fluorescence microscopy is from
a) Mercury lamp
b) Sunlight
c) Both a and b
d) None of these
71. Cold like symptoms are caused by which
bacteria
a) Pseudomonas
b) E.coli
c) Haemophilus influenza
d) Haemophilus streptococcus
72. In Streptococcus fecalis, the conjugation
takes place at
a) Pili
b) Cell membrane
c) Cell wall
d) Flagella
73. The infected mad dogs may contain
a) Nergi bodies
b) Niagri bodies
c) Negri bodies
d) Neisser bodies
74. What disease the Nesser will produce?
a) Mumps
b) Rubella
c) Polio
d) Measles
75. Rancidity in spoiled foods is due to
a) Lipolytic organisms
b) Proteolytic organisms
c) Toxigenic microbes
d) Saccharolytic microbes
76. The Baterium that is most commonly used
in genetic engineering is
a) Escherichia
b) Klebsiella
c) Proteius
d) Serratia
77. The functions of plasmid are
a) DNA replication
b) Protein synthesis
c) Cell wall synthesis
d) None of the above
78. Mycoplasmas are bacterial cells that
a) Fail to reproduce on artificial meida
b) Have a rigid cell wall
c) Are resistant to penicillin
d) Stain well with Gram’s stain
79. The etiologic agent of botulism is a
a) Neurotoxin
b) Endotoxin
c) Enterotoxin
d) All of the above
80. The bacterial cells are at their metabolic
peak during
a) Lag phase
b) Log
c) Stationary
d) Decline
81. Protein particles which can infect are
called
a) Virons
b) Prions
c) Nucleoida
d) None of these
82. In most of purple bacteria, the light
harvesting centers are
a) B 850 & Fe-S
b) B 850 & B 875
c) B 845 & B 875
d) B 850 & B830
83. Endotoxin produced by gramnegative
bacteria is present in
a) Peptidoglycan
b) Lippolysacharide
c) Theichoic acid
d) Inner membrane
84. Which one of the following was Gram negative, chemolithotrophic bacteria?
a) Siderococcus
b) E.coli
c) Spirellum
d) Mycoplasms
85. The mode of reproduction which occurs
in mycoplasma is
a) Budding
b) Bursting
c) Binary fission
d) Binary fusion
86. Which one of the following is about
Herpes viruses?
a) Icosahedral, with envelope, ds DNA
b) Polyhedral with envelope, ds DNA
c) RNA, helical with envelope
d) ds DNA, brick shape
87. Which one of the following produce
typical fried egg appearance colonies on
solid media?
a) Mycobacteria
b) Mycoplasts
c) Mycoplasms
d) Bacteroides
88. An organism that is osmophilic and has
a specific requirements for sodium
chloride resembles
a) Halophile
b) Basophile
c) Barophile
d) Xerophile
89. A population of cells derived from a single
cell are called
a) Monclonal cells
b) Clones
c) Protoplasts
d) Sub culture
90. Hetrolactic acid bacteria produce
a) Lactic acid only
b) Lactic acid + H2O + CO2
c) Lactic acid + CO2
d) Lactic acid + alchohol + CO2
91. In which of the follwing microorganism,
conjunction tube was not produced
during conjunction process?
a) Thiobaillus thiooxidence
b) T. ferroxidance
c) Tetrahymena thermophila
d) Cryptaporiclium
92. Which of the following is most similar to
Rickettsia and Chlamydia?
a) Bdellovibrio
b) Clostridium
c) Mycobacterium
d) Mycoldaima
93. How would you distinguish pseudomonas
species from E-cloi?
a) Gram staining
b) Morphology
c) Glucose fermentation Vs Respiration
d) All of the above
94. Which of the following is pathogenic to
humans?
a) Spirogyra
b) Cephaleuros
c) Prototheca
d) Both b and c
95. Tumer inducing plasmids are extensively
used in production of
a) Avirulent phases
b) Single cell proteins
c) Transgenic plants
d) Nitrogen fixing bacteria
96. The viruses that live as parasites on bac teria are
a) Fungi
b) Commensels
c) Bacteriophages
d) None of these
97. The anthrax disease is most frequently
infected from
a) Cattle
b) Sheeps
c) Rats
d) Both a and b
98. The colonies produced by Pseudomonas
on Mac Conkey’s medium are
a) Purple colored
b) Pink colored
c) Pale colored
d) Green colored
99. Staining material of gram positive
bacterium is
a) Fast green
b) Haematoxylon
c) Crystal violet
d) Safranin
100. The pigment present in red algae is
a) Rhodochrome
b) Fucoxanthin
c) Chlorophyll only
d) Chlorophyll + phycobilin
101. During mitosis, synapsis occurs in the
phase called
a) Telophase
b) Anaphase
c) Prophase
d) None of the above
102. Which of the following change is a
transition?
a) ATGC’!ATCC
b) ATGC’!ATGG
c) ATGC’!AGGC
d) None of these
103. Citrus canker is caused by
a) Phytomonas
b) Salmonella
c) Lactobacillus
d) Hay bacillus
104. Bacter ia that are respons ib le for
fermentation of dairy milk are
a) Azetobacter
b) Rhizobium
c) Lactobacillus
d) Hay bacillus
105. The fungal disease that affect the internal
organs and spread through the body are
called
a) Mycoses
b) Systemic mycoses
c) Mycotoxicosis
d) Superficial mycoses
106. The staining technique used to stain the
metachromatic granules of Corynebacterium
a) Giemsa stain
b) Alberts stain
c) Acid fast staining
d) Both a and b
107. The orderly increase in all components
of protoplasm of a cell is called
a) Reproduction
b) Cell division
c) Growth
d) All of the above
108. The causative organism of cholera, i.e.,
Vibrio show the movement called
a) Gliding movement
b) Darting movement
c) Pseudopoidal movement
d) None of these
109. Erythrocytes will get its ATP energy only
by
a) Glycolysis
b) Kreb’s cycle
c) Electron Transport
d) HMP shunt
110. Virus will contain
a) Cell membrane
b) Cell wall
c) DNA
d) DNA or RNA
111. The bacterial pili mainly contain
a) Carbohydrates
b) Lipids
c) Proteins
d) Minerals
112. The wonder drug of second world war is
produced by
a) Algae
b) Fungi
c) Bacteria
d) Plants
113. Role of bacteria in carbon cycle is
a) Photosynthesis
b) Chemosynthesis
c) Breakdown of organic compounds
d) Assimilation of nitrogen compounds
114. Centromere is that part of chromosome
where
a) Nucleoli are formed
b) Crossing over takes places
c) Chromatids are attached
d) Naking occurs
115. Somatic cell of the adult body are haploid
in many except
a) Vertebrates
b) Invertebrates
c) Fungi
d) Vascular plants
116. Congential diseases are
a) Diseases present at birth
b) Deficiency disease
c) Occur during life
d) Spread from one individual to another
117. The enzyme needed in biological systems
for joining two molecules is called
a) Lyases
b) Diastases
c) Polymerases
d) Hydrolase
118. Meosomes are the part of
a) Plasma membrane
b) ER
c) Lysosomes
d) Golgi
119. All prokaryotes are surrounded by a cell
wall except
a) Mycoplasms
b) Sperochetes
c) Actinomycetes
d) Methanogena
120. Enzyme hydrolyzing bacterial cell wall
a) Lysozome
b) Reductase
c) Protease
d) Lysozyme
121. Cows can digest straw because they contain
a) Cellulose hydrolyzing microorganisms
b) Protein hydrolyzing bacteria
c) Lipid hydrolyzing microorganisms
d) Amino acid degrading bacteria
122. The nucleus controls protein synthesis in
the cytoplasm by sending
a) Chromatin
b) A DNA template
c) m RNA molecule
d) A pecialized protein
123. The site of energy production in a cell
a) Micro body
b) Chromosome
c) Ribosome
d) Mitochondria
124. Thylakoid is present in
a) Mitochondria
b) Chloroplast
c) ER
d) Golgi apparatus
125. Which one of the following bacteria has
found extensive use in genetic engineering
work in plants?
a) Clostridum septicum
b) Xanthomonas oriza
c) Bacillus coagulens
d) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
126. Maximum application of animal cell
culture technology today is in the
production of
a) Insulin
b) Interferons
c) Vaccines
d) Edible proteins
127. Bacterial ribosomes are composed of
a) Protein and DNA
b) Protein and mRNA
c) Protein and rRNA
d) Protein and tRNA
128. The potorespiration involves
a) Calvin cycle
b) Hatch-Slack cycle
c) Glycolate cycle
d) Kreb’s cycle
129. Bioleaching is done by
a) Protozoa
b) Bacteria
c) Algae
d) All of the above
130. Inclusion bodies diagnostic of rabies are
called
a) Elementary bodies
b) Pascheur bodies
c) Negri bodies
d) Guarnieri bodies
131. Which of the following genera is most
likely to contain organisms capable of
surviving high temperature?
a) Vibrio
b) Pseudomonas
c) Torula
d) Coxiella
132. The major role of minor elements inside
living organisms is to act as
a) Co-factors of enzymes
b) Building blocks of important amino acids
c) Constituents of hormones
d) Binder of cell structure
133. The apparatus used to ma inta in a
continuous culture
a) Chemostat
b) Autostat
c) Thermostat
d) Both a and c
134. The test used to detect the deamination
of the amino acids by bacteria
a) Nessler’s reagent test
b) Proteolytic test
c) Lactose test
d) Rose aindole reagent test
135. Diphtheria is caused by
a) Corynebacterium
b) Staphylococcus
c) Streptococcus
d) None of these
136. Koplic spots observed in the mucous
membrane is characteristic feature of the
disease
a) Rubella
b) Measles
c) Mumps
d) Influenza
137. A bacterium containing prophage is
called as
a) Lytic
b) Lysogen
c) Lytogen
d) None of these
138. The most infectious food borne disease is
a) Tetanus
b) Dysentery
c) Gas gangrene
d) Botulism
139. An example for common air borne
epidemic disease
a) Influenza
b) Typhoid
c) Encephalitis
d) Malaria
140. Vrial genome can become integrated into
the bacterial genomes are known as
a) Prophage
b) Temperatephage
c) Bacteriophage
d) Metaphage
141. Rancidity of stored foods is due to the
activity of
a) Toxigenic microbes
b) Proteolytic microbes
c) Saccharolytic microbes
d) Lipolytic microbes
142. Virion means
a) Infectious virus particles
b) Non-infectious particles
c) Incomplete particles
d) Defective virus particles
143. Virulence of the microorganisms can be
reduced by
a) Attenuation
b) A virulence
c) Inactivation
d) Freezing
144. The test used for detection of typhoid fever
a) WIDAL test
b) ELISA
c) Rosewaller test
d) Westernblotting
145. Bacteriophage capable of only lytic
growth is called
a) Temperate
b) Avirulent
c) Virulent
d) None of these
146. Diphtheria bacillus is otherwise known as
a) Fried-Landers bacillus
b) Kleb’s hofflers bacillus
c) Frchs bacillus
d) Koch’s bacillus
147. Acridine dyes are more effective against
a) Gram positive
b) Gram negative
c) Ricke Hsia
d) Mycoplasma
148. In bacteria pigment bearing structures are
a) Chloroplast
b) Protoplast
c) Sphaeroplast
d) Chromatophores
149. The procedure of differential staining of
bacteria was developed by
a) A.H. Gram
b) H.C. Gram
c) N.C. Gram
d) H.A. Gram
150. Intermediate group of pathogen between
bacteria and viruses which are intracellular
parasites are called
a) Mucoplasmas
b) Rickettsias
c) Prions
d) Virusoides
151. Bacillus is an example of
a) Gram positive bacteria
b) Gram negative bacteria
c) Virus
d) Viroid
152. Amoebic dysentery in humans is caused
by
a) Plasmodium
b) Paramecium
c) Yeast
d) Entamoeba histolytica
153. Viral genome that can become integrated
into bacterial genome is called
a) Prophage
b) Temperate phage
c) Bacteriophage
d) Metaphage
154. Cytochromes are
a) Oxygen acceptors
b) ATP acceptors
c) Electron acceptors
d) Protein acceptors
155. The cells having F plasmid in the
chromosomes were termed as
a) Hfr
b) F–
c) Hbr
d) C+
156. Recombination process occurring through
the mediation of phages is
a) Conjunction
b) Transduction
c) Transformation
d) Transfection
157. Mordant used in grams staining is
a) Crystal violet
b) Iodine
c) Saffranin
d) All of these
158. Parasitic form must contain
a) Capsule
b) Cell-wall
c) Endospores
d) Flagella
159. Gram staining is an example for
a) Simple staining
b) Differential staining
c) Negative staining
d) None of these
160. Following Cocci are non-motile except
a) Staphylococcus
b) Meningococcus
c) Gonococcus
d) Rhodococcus agilis
161. Aspergillus fumigatus can infect
a) Birds
b) Animals
c) Man
d) All of them
162. Enterotoxin responsible for food poisoning
is secreted by
a) Enterococci
b) Entamoeba histolytica
c) Enterobacteriaceae
d) Straphylococci
163. Autolysis is done by
a) Mitochondria
b) Lysosomes
c) Golgi bodies
d) Peroxisomes
164. A facultative anaerobic is
a) Only grow anaerobically
b) Only grow in the presence of O2
c) Ordinarily an anaerobe but can grow with
O2
d) Ordinarily an aerobe but can grow in
absence of O2
165. The percentage of O2 required by
moderate anaerobe is
a) 0%
b) < 0.5%
c) 2 – 8%
d) 5 – 10%
166. Interferon is formed by
a) Lymphocytes
b) Lymphoblasts
c) Fibroblasts
d) All of these
167. Pigment bearing structure of bacteria are
a) Mesosomes
b) Plasmids
c) Mitochondria
d) Chromophores
168. Spirochete is
a) Gonococci
b) Strphylococci
c) Treponema pallidum
d) Streptococci
169. Histones are found in
a) Prokaryotes
b) Eukaryotes
c) Viruses
d) None of these
170. Cell wall of gram negative bacteria is
a) Thick
b) Lipids are present
c) Teichoic acids are absent
d) None of these