1. A drug which prevents uric acid synthesis by inhibiting the enzyme xanthine oxidase is
a) Aspirin
b) Allopurinol
c) Colchicine
d) Probenecid
2. Which of the following is required for crystallization and storage of the hormone insulin?
a) Mn++
b) Mg++
c) Ca++
d) Zn++
3. Oxidation of which substance in the body yields the most calories
a) Glucose
b) Glycogen
c) Protein
d) Lipids
4. Milk is deficient of which mineral?
a) Phosphorus
b) Sodium
c) Iron
d) Potassium
5. Milk is deficient in which vitamins?
a) Vitamin C
b) Vitamin A
c) Vitamin B2
d) Vitamin K
6. Synthesis of prostaglandinsis is inhibited by
a) Aspirin
b) Arsenic
c) Fluoride
d) Cyanide
7. HDL is synthesized and secreted from
a) Pancreas
b) Liver
c) Kidney
d) Muscle
8. Which are the cholesterol esters that enter cells through the receptor-mediated endocytosis of lipoproteins hydrolyzed?
a) Endoplasmin reticulum
b) Lysosomes
c) Plasma membrane receptor
d) Mitochondria
9. Which of the following phospholipids is localized to a greater extent in the outer leaflet of the membrane lipid bilayer?
a) Choline phosphoglycerides
b) Ethanolamine phosphoglycerides
c) Inositol phosphoglycerides
d) Serine phosphoglycerides
10. All the following processes occur rapidly in the membrane lipid bilayer except
a) Flexing of fatty acyl chains
b) Lateral diffusion of phospholipids
c) Transbilayer diffusion of phopholipids
d) Rotation of phospholipids around their long axes
11. Which of the following statement is correct about membrane cholesterol?
a) The hydroxyl group is located near the centre of the lipid layer
b) Most of the cholesterol is in the form of a cholesterol ester
c) The steroid nucleus form forms a rigid, planar structure
d) The hydrocarbon chain of cholesterol projects into the extracellular fluid
12. Which one is the heaviest particulate component of the cell?
a) Nucleus
b) Mitochondria
c) Cytoplasm
d) Golgi apparatus
13. Which one is the largest particulate of the cytoplasm?
a) Lysosomes
b) Mitochondria
c) Golgi apparatus
d) Entoplasmic reticulum
14. The degradative Processess are categorized under the heading of
a) Anabolism
b) Catabolism
c) Metabolism
d) None of the above
15. The exchange of material takes place
a) Only by diffusion
b) Only by active transport
c) Only by pinocytosis
d) All of these
16. The pH of blood is 7.4 when the ratio between H2CO3 and NaHCO3 is
a) 1:10
b) 1:20
c) 1:25
d) 1:30
17. The average pH of Urine is
a) 7.0
b) 6.0
c) 8.0
d) 0.0
18. The phenomenon of osmosis is opposite to that of
a) Diffusion
b) Effusion
c) Affusion
d) Coagulation
19. The surface tension in intestinal lumen between fat droplets and aqueous medium is decreased by
a) Bile Salts
b) Bile acids
c) Conc. H2SO4
d) Acetic acid
20. Which of the following is located in the mitochondria?
a) Cytochrome oxidase
b) Succinate dehydrogenase
c) Dihydrolipoyl dehydrogenase
d) All of these
21. The most active site of protein synthesis is the
a) Nucleus
b) Ribosome
c) Mitochondrion
d) Cell sap
22. The fatty acids can be transported into and out of mitochondria through
a) Active transport
b) Facilitated transfer
c) Non-facilitated transfer
d) None of these
23. Mitochondrial DNA is
a) Circular double stranded
b) Circular single stranded
c) Linear double helix
d) None of these
24. The absorption of intact protein from the gut in the foetal and newborn animals takes place by
a) Pinocytosis
b) Passive diffusion
c) Simple diffusion
d) Active transport
25. The cellular organelles called “suicide bags” are
a) Lysosomes
b) Ribosomes
c) Nucleolus
d) Golgi’s bodies
26. From the biological viewpoint, solutions can be grouped into
a) Isotonic solution
b) Hypotonic solutions
c) Hypertonic solution
d) All of these
27. Bulk transport across cell membrane is accomplished by
a) Phagocytosis
b) Pinocytosis
c) Extrusion
d) All of these
28. Carrier protein can
a) Transport only one substance
b) Transport more than one substance
c) Exchange one substance to another
d) Perform all of these functions
29. The ability of the cell membrane to act as a selective barrier depends upon
a) The lipid composition of the membrane
b) The pores which allows small molecules
c) The special mediated transport systems
d) All of these
30. A lipid bilayer is permeable to
a) Urea
b) Fructose
c) Glucose
d) Potassium
31. The Golgi complex
a) Synthesizes proteins
b) Produces ATP
c) Provides a pathway for transporting chemicals
d) Forms glycoproteins
32. The following points about microfilaments are true except
a) They form cytoskeleton with microtubules
b) They provide support and shape
c) They form intracellular conducting channels
d) They are involved in muscle cell contraction
33. Fatty acids can be transported into and out of cell membrane by
a) Active transport
b) Facilitated transport
c) Diffusion
d) Osmosis
34. The following substances are cell inclusions except
a) Melanin
b) Glycogen
c) Lipids
d) Centrosome
35. Enzymes catalyzing electron transport are present mainly in the
a) Ribosomes
b) Inner mitochondrial membrane
c) Lysosomes
d) Endoplasmic reticulum
36. Mature erythrocytes do not contain
a) Glycolytic enzymes
b) HMP shunt enzymes
c) Pyridine nucleotide
d) ATP
37. In mammalian cells rRNA is produced mainly in the
a) Endoplasmic reticulum
b) Nucleolus
c) Ribosome
d) Nucleus
38. Genetic information of nuclear DNA is transmitted to the site of protein synthesis by
a) rRNA
b) mRNA
c) tRNA
d) Polysomes
39. The power house of the cell is
a) Nucleus
b) Cell membrane
c) Mitochondria
d) Lysosomes
40. The digestive enzymes of cellular compounds are confined to
a) Lysosomes
b) Ribosomes
c) Peroxisomes
d) Polysomes
41. The general formula of monosaccharides is
a) CnH2nOn
b) C2nH2On
c) CnH2O2n
d) CnH2nO2n
42. The general formula of polysaccharides is
a) (C6H10O5)n
b) (C6H12O5)n
c) (C6H10O6)n
d) (C6H12O6)n
43. The aldose sugar is
a) Ribulose
b) Glycerose
c) Erythrulose
d) Dihydoxyacetone
44. A triose sugar is
a) Glycerose
b) Ribose
c) Erythrose
d) Fructose
45. A pentose sugar is
a) Dihydroxyacetone
b) Ribulose
c) Erythrose
d) Glucose
46. The pentose sugar present mainly in the heart muscle is
a) Xylose
b) Ribose
c) Arabinose
d) Lyxose
47. Polysaccharides are
a) Polymers
b) Acids
c) Proteins
d) Oils
48. The number of isomers of glucose is
a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16
49. Two sugars which differ from one another only in configuration around a single carbon atom are termed
a) Epimers
b) Anomers
c) Optical isomers
d) Stereoisomers
50. Isomers differing as a result of variations in configuration of the —OH and —H on carbon atoms 2, 3 and 4 of glucose are known as
a) Epimers
b) Anomers
c) Optical isomers
d) Steroisomers
51. The most important epimer of glucose is
a) Galactose
b) Fructose
c) Arabinose
d) Xylose
52. α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose are
a) Stereoisomers
b) Epimers
c) Anomers
d) Keto-aldo pairs
53. α-D-glucose + 1120 → + 52.50 ← + 190 β-D-glucose for glucose above represents
a) Optical isomerism
b) Mutarotation
c) Epimerisation
d) D and L isomerism
54. Compounds having the same structural formula but differing in spatial configuration are known as
a) Stereoisomers
b) Anomers
c) Optical isomers
d) Epimers
55. In glucose the orientation of the —H and —OH groups around the carbon atom 5 adjacent to the terminal primary alcohol carbon determines
a) D or L series
b) Dextro or levorotatory
c) α and β anomers
d) Epimers
56. The carbohydrate of the blood group substances is
a) Sucrose
b) Fucose
c) Arabinose
d) Maltose
57. Erythromycin contains
a) Dimethyl amino sugar
b) Trimethyl amino sugar
c) Sterol and sugar
d) Glycerol and sugar
58. A sugar alcohol is
a) Mannitol
b) Trehalose
c) Xylulose
d) Arabinose
59. The major sugar of insect hemolymph is
a) Glycogen
b) Pectin
c) Trehalose
d) Sucrose
60. The sugar found in DNA is
a) Xylose
b) Ribose
c) Deoxyribose
d) Ribulose
61. ADH test is based on the measurement of
a) Specific gravity of urine
b) Concentration of urea in urine
c) Concentration of urea in blood
d) Volume of urine in ml/minute
62. The specific gravity of urine normally
ranges from
a) 0.900–0.999
b) 1.003–1.030
c) 1.000–1.001
d) 1.101–1.120
63. Specific gravity of urine increases in
a) Diabetes mellitus
b) Chronic glomerulonephritis
c) Compulsive polydypsia
d) Hypercalcemi
64. Fixation of specific gravity of urine to
1.010 is found in
a) Diabetes insipidus
b) Compulsive polydypsia
c) Cystinosis
d) Chronic glomerulonephritis
65. Addis test is the measure of
a) Impairment of the capacity of the tubule to
perform osmotic work
b) Secretory function of liver
c) Excretory function of liver
d) Activity of parenchymal cells of liver
66. Number of stereoisomers of glucose is
a) 4
b) 8
c) 16
d) None of these
67. Maltose can be formed by hydrolysis of
a) Starch
b) Dextrin
c) Glycogen
d) All of these
68. α–D–Glucuronic acid is present in
a) Hyaluronic acid
b) Chondroitin sulphate
c) Heparin
d) All of these
69. Fructose is present in hydrolysate of
a) Sucrose
b) Inulin
c) Both of the above
d) None of these
70. A carbohydrate found in DNA is
a) Ribose
b) Deoxyribose
c) Ribulose
d) All of these
71. Ribulose is a these
a) Ketotetrose
b) Aldotetrose
c) Ketopentose
d) Aldopentose
72. A carbohydrate, commonly known as
dextrose is
a) Dextrin
b) D-Fructose
c) D-Glucose
d) Glycogen
73. A carbohydrate found only in milk is
a) Glucose
b) Galactose
c) Lactose
d) Maltose
74. A carbohydrate, known commonly as
invert sugar, is
a) Fructose
b) Sucrose
c) Glucose
d) Lactose
75. A heteropolysacchraide among the
following is
a) Inulin
b) Cellulose
c) Heparin
d) Dextrin
76. The predominant form of glucose in
solution is
a) Acyclic form
b) Hydrated acyclic form
c) Glucofuranose
d) Glucopyranose
77. An L-isomer of monosaccharide formed in
human body is
a) L-fructose
b) L-Erythrose
c) L-Xylose
d) L-Xylulose
78. Hyaluronic acid is found in
a) Joints
b) Brain
c) Abdomen
d) Mouth
79. The carbon atom wh ich becomes
asymmetric when the straight chain form
of monosaccharide changes into ring
form is known as
a) Anomeric carbon atom
b) Epimeric carbon atom
c) Isomeric carbon atom
d) None of these
80. The smallest monosaccharide having
furanose ring structure is
a) Erythrose
b) Ribose
c) Glucose
d) Fructose
81. Which of the following is an epimeric pair?
a) Glucose and fructose
b) Glucose and galactose
c) Galactose and mannose
d) Lactose and maltose
82. α-Glycosidic bond is present in
a) Lactose
b) Maltose
c) Sucrose
d) All of these
83. Branching occurs in glycogen approximately after every
a) Five glucose units
b) Ten glucose units
c) Fifteen glucose units
d) Twenty glucose units
84. N–Acetylglucosamnine is present in
a) Hyaluronic acid
b) Chondroitin sulphate
c) Heparin
d) All of these
85. Iodine gives a red colour with
a) Starch
b) Dextrin
c) Glycogen
d) Inulin
86. Amylose is a constituent of
a) Starch
b) Cellulose
c) Glycogen
d) None of these
87. Synovial fluid contains
a) Heparin
b) Hyaluronic acid
c) Chondroitin sulphate
d) Keratin sulphate
88. Gluconeogenesis is decreased by
a) Glucagon
b) Epinephrine
c) Glucocorticoids
d) Insulin
89. Lactate formed in muscles can be utilised
through
a) Rapoport-Luebeling cycle
b) Glucose-alanine cycle
c) Cori’s cycle
d) Citric acid cycle
90. Glucose-6-phosphatase is not present in
a) Liver and kidneys
b) Kidneys and muscles
c) Kidneys and adipose tissue
d) Muscles and adipose tissue
91. Pyruvate carboxylase is regulated by
a) Induction
b) Repression
c) Allosteric regulation
d) All of these
92. Fructose-2, 6-biphosphate is formed by
the action of
a) Phosphofructokinase-1
b) Phosphofructokinase-2
c) Fructose biphosphate isomerase
d) Fructose-1, 6-biphosphatase
93. The highest concentrations of fructose are
found in
a) Aqueous humor
b) Vitreous humor
c) Synovial fluid
d) Seminal fluid
94. Glucose uptake by liver cells is
a) Energy-consuming
b) A saturable process
c) Insulin-dependent
d) Insulin-independent
95. Renal threshold for glucose is decreased
in
a) Diabetes mellitus
b) Insulinoma
c) Renal glycosuria
d) Alimentary glycosuria
96. Active uptake of glucose is inhibited by
a) Ouabain
b) Phlorrizin
c) Digoxin
d) Alloxan
97. Glucose-6-phosphatase is absent or
deficient in
a) Von Gierke’s disease
b) Pompe’s disease
c) Cori’s disease
d) McArdle’s disease
98. Debranching enzyme is absent in
a) Cori’s disease
b) Andersen’s disease
c) Von Gierke’s disease
d) Her’s disease
99. McArdle’s disease is due to the deficiency
of
a) Glucose-6-phosphatase
b) Phosphofructokinase
c) Liver phosphorylase
d) muscle phosphorylase
100. Tautomerisation is
a) Shift of hydrogen
b) Shift of carbon
c) Shift of both
d) None of these
101. In essential pentosuria, urine contains
a) D-Ribose
b) D-Xylulose
c) L-Xylulose
d) D-Xylose
102. Action of salivary amylase on starch leads
to the formation of
a) Maltose
b) Maltotriose
c) Both of the above
d) Neither of these
103. Congenital galactosaemia can lead to
a) Mental retardation
b) Premature cataract
c) Death
d) All of the above
104. Uridine diphosphate glucose (UDPG) is
a) Required for metabolism of galactose
b) Required for synthesis of glucuronic acid
c) A substrate for glycogen synthetase
d) All of the above
105. Catalytic activity of salivary amylase
requires the presence of
a) Chloride ions
b) Bromide ions
c) Iodide ions
d) All of these
106. The following is actively absorbed in the
intestine:
a) Fructose
b) Mannose
c) Galactose
d) None of these
107. An amphibolic pathway among the
following is
a) HMP shunt
b) Glycolysis
c) Citirc acid cycle
d) Gluconeogenesis
108. Cori’s cycle transfer
a) Glucose from muscles to liver
b) Lactate from muscles to liver
c) Lactate from liver to muscles
d) Pyruvate from liver to muscles
109. Excessive intake of ethanol increases the
ratio:
a) NADH : NAD+
b) NAD+ : NADH
c) FADH2 : FAD
d) FAD : FADH2
110. Ethanol decreases gluconeogenesis by
a) Inhibiting glucose-6-phosphatase
b) Inhibiting PEP carboxykinase
c) Converting NAD+ into NADH and decreasing
the availability of pyruvate
d) Converting NAD+ into NADH and decreasing
the availability of lactate
111. Glycogenin is
a) Uncoupler of oxidative phosphorylation
b) Polymer of glycogen molecules
c) Protein primer for glycogen synthesis
d) Intermediate in glycogen breakdown
112. During starvation, ketone bodies are used
as a fuel by
a) Erythrocytes
b) Brain
c) Liver
d) All of these
113. Animal fat is in general
a) Poor in saturated and rich in polyunsaturated
fatty acids
b) Rich in saturated and poor in polyunsaturated
fatty acids
c) Rich in saturated and polyunsaturated fatty
acids
d) Poor in saturated and polyunsaturated fatty
acids
114. All proteins contain the
a) Same 20 amino acids
b) Different amino acids
c) 300 Amino acids occurring in nature
d) Only a few amino acids
115. Proteins contain
a) Only L- α - amino acids
b) Only D-amino acids
c) DL-Amino acids
d) Both (A) and (B)
116. The optically inactive amino acid is
a) Glycine
b) Serine
c) Threonine
d) Valine
117. At neutral pH, a mixture of amino acids
in solution would be predominantly:
a) Dipolar ions
b) Nonpolar molecules
c) Positive and monovalent
d) Hydrophobic
118. The true statement about solutions of
amino acids at physiological pH is
a) All amino acids contain both positive and
negative charges
b) All amino acids contain positively charged
side chains
c) Some amino acids contain only positive
charge
d) All amino acids contain negatively charged
side chains
119. pH (isoelectric pH) of alanine is
a) 6.02
b) 6.6
c) 6.8
d) 7.2
120. Since the pK values for aspartic acid are
2.0, 3.9 and 10.0, it follows that the
isoelectric (pH) is
a) 3.0
b) 3.9
c) 5.9
d) 6.0
121. Sulphur containing amino acid is
a) Methionine
b) Leucine
c) Valine
d) Asparagine
122. An example of sulphur containing amino
acid is
a) 2-Amino-3-mercaptopropanoic acid
b) 2-Amino-3-methylbutanoic acid
c) 2-Amino-3-hydroxypropanoic acid
d) Amino acetic acid
123. All the following are sulphur containing
amino acids found in proteins except
a) Cysteine
b) Cystine
c) Methionine
d) Threonine
124. An aromatic amino acid is
a) Lysine
b) Tyrosine
c) Taurine
d) Arginine
125. The functions of plasma albumin are
a) Osmosis
b) Transport
c) Immunity
d) Both (A) and (B)
126. Amino acid with side chain containing
basic groups is
a) 2-Amino 5-guanidovaleric acid
b) 2-Pyrrolidine carboxylic acid
c) 2-Amino 3-mercaptopropanoic acid
d) 2-Amino propanoic acid
127. An example of α-amino acid not present
in proteins but essential in mammalian
metabolism is
a) 3-Amino 3-hydroxypropanoic acid
b) 2-Amino 3-hydroxybutanoic acid
c) 2-Amino 4-mercaptobutanoic acid
d) 2-Amino 3-mercaptopropanoic acid
128. An essential amino acid in man is
a) Aspartate
b) Tyrosine
c) Methionine
d) Serine
129. Non essential amino acids
a) Are not components of tissue proteins
b) May be synthesized in the body from essential
amino acids
c) Have no role in the metabolism
d) May be synthesized in the body in diseased
states
130. Which one of the following is semi-essential amino acid for humans?
a) Valine
b) Arginine
c) Lysine
d) Tyrosine
131. An example of polar amino acid is
a) Alanine
b) Leucine
c) Arginine
d) Valine
132. The amino acid with a nonpolar side chain
is
a) Serine
b) Valine
c) Asparagine
d) Threonine
133. A ketogenic amino acid is
a) Valine
b) Cysteine
c) Leucine
d) Threonine
134. An amino acid that does not form an α helix is
a) Valine
b) Proline
c) Tyrosine
d) Tryptophan
135. An amino acid not found in proteins is
a) β-Alanine
b) Proline
c) Lysine
d) Histidine
136. In mammalian tissues serine can be a
biosynthetic precursor of
a) Methionine
b) Glycine
c) Tryptophan
d) Phenylalanine
137. A vasodilating compound is produced by
the decarboxylation of the amino acid:
a) Arginine
b) Aspartic acid
c) Glutamine
d) Histidine
138. Biuret reaction is specific for
a) –CONH-linkages
b) –CSNH2 group
c) –(NH)NH2 group
d) All of these
139. Sakaguchi’s reaction is specific for
a) Tyrosine
b) Proline
c) Arginine
d) Cysteine
140. Million-Nasse’s reaction is specific for the
amino acid:
a) Tryptophan
b) Tyrosine
c) Phenylalanine
d) Arginine
141. Ninhydrin with evolution of CO2 forms a
blue complex with
a) Peptide bond
b) α-Amino acids
c) Serotonin
d) Histamine
142. The most of the ultraviolet absorption of
proteins above 240 nm is due to their
content of
a) Tryptophan
b) Aspartate
c) Glutamate
d) Alanine
143. Which of the following is a dipeptide?
a) Anserine
b) Glutathione
c) Glucagon
d) β -Lipoprotein
144. Which of the following is a tripeptide?
a) Anserine
b) Oxytocin
c) Glutathione
d) Kallidin
145. A peptide which acts as potent smooth
muscle hypotensive agent is
a) Glutathione
b) Bradykinin
c) Tryocidine
d) Gramicidin-s
146. A tripeptide functioning as an important
reducing agent in the tissues is
a) Bradykinin
b) Kallidin
c) Tyrocidin
d) Glutathione
147. An example of metalloprotein is
a) Casein
b) Ceruloplasmin
c) Gelatin
d) Salmine
148. Carbonic anhydrase is an example of
a) Lipoprotein
b) Phosphoprotein
c) Metalloprotein
d) Chromoprotein
149. An example of chromoprotein is
a) Hemoglobin
b) Sturine
c) Nuclein
d) Gliadin
150. An example of scleroprotein is
a) Zein
b) Keratin
c) Glutenin
d) Ovoglobulin
151. Casein, the milk protein is
a) Nucleoprotein
b) Chromoprotein
c) Phosphoprotein
d) Glycoprotein
152. An example of phosphoprotein present
in egg yolk is
a) Ovoalbumin
b) Ovoglobulin
c) Ovovitellin
d) Avidin
153. A simple protein found in the nucleopro teins of the sperm is
a) Prolamine
b) Protamine
c) Glutelin
d) Globulin
154. Histones are
a) Identical to protamine
b) Proteins rich in lysine and arginine
c) Proteins with high molecular weight
d) Insoluble in water and very dilute acids
155. The protein present in hair is
a) Keratin
b) Elastin
c) Myosin
d) Tropocollagen
156. The amino acid from which synthesis of
the protein of hair keratin takes place is
a) Alanine
b) Methionine
c) Proline
d) Hydroxyproline
157. In one molecule of albumin the number
of amino acids is
a) 510
b) 590
c) 610
d) 650
158. Plasma proteins which contain more than
4% hexosamine are
a) Microglobulins
b) Glycoproteins
c) Mucoproteins
d) Orosomucoids
159. After releasing O2 at the tissues,
hemoglobin transports
a) CO2 and protons to the lungs
b) O2 to the lungs
c) CO2 and protons to the tissue
d) Nutrients
160. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome characterized by
hypermobile joints and skin abnormalities
is due to
a) Abnormality in gene for procollagen
b) Deficiency of lysyl oxidase
c) Deficiency of prolyl hydroxylase
d) Deficiency of lysyl hydroxylase