1. Which bank is known as banker’s bank?
a) RBI
b) SBI
c) PNB
d) NABARD
2. A banking system where business is carried on by a bank through a network of branches spread throughout the country is known as ………
a) Unit banking
b) Branch banking
c) chain banking
d) group banking
3. ………… refers to a system of banking in which two or more independent banks are brought under the control of a holding company
a) Group banking
b) chain banking
c) deposit banking
d) investment banking
4. ………… Banking is a system where banks combine both the deposit banking and invest banking functions
a) Chain banking
b) deposit banking
c) investment banking
d) mixed banking
5. India's first women's bank The Bharatiya Mahila Bank was inaugurated in which city ?
a) Kolkata
b) Delhi
c) Mumbai
d) Chennai
6. Current deposit is also known as ………
a) Savings deposit
b) demand deposit
c) time deposit
d) recurring deposit
7. …………… is a credit facility granted by commercial banks to current account holders
a) Cash credit
b) overdraft
c) discounting of bills of exchange
d) demand loans
8. which deposits are repayable after the expiry of the fixed period ?
a) demand deposit
b) time deposit
c) savings deposit
d) recurring deposit
9. The process of ………… begins with banks lending money out of primary deposit.
a) credit creation
b) cash credit
c) debit creation
d) over draft
10. CRR refers to …………
a) Cash Reserve Ratio
b) Credit Reserve Ratio
c) Common Reserve Ratio
d) None of these
11. NBFIs refers to ………
a) Non Banking Financial Industries
b) Non Banking Financial Institution
c) Net Banking Financial Industries
d) Net Banking Financial Institutions
12. DIGC refers to …………
a) Deposit Industrial Guarantee Corporation
b) Development Insurance Guarantee Corporation
c) Development Industrial Guarantee Corporation
d) Deposit Insurance Guarantee Corporation
13. SLR refers to …………
a) Statutory Liquidity Ratio
b) Stability Liquidity Ratio
c) Safety Liquidity Ratio
d) None of these
14. EFT stands for ……
a) Electronic Fund Transmission
b) Electronic Fund Transfer
c) Electronic Feature Transfer
d) None of these
15. Which bank was introduced first ATM machine in India?
a) RBI
b) HSBC
c) PNB
d) ICICI bank
16. CDM refers to …………
a) Cash Development Method
b) Credit Development Method
c) Cash Deposit Machine
d) Cash Development Machine
17. ECS refers to ……………
a) Easy Cash Service
b) Electronic Clearing Service
c) Electronic cash service
d) Easy Clearing Service
18. NEFT refers to …………
a) National Economic Funds Transfer
b) National Economic Fund Transfer
c) National Electronic Fee Transfer
d) none of these
19. IFSC stands for …………
a) Indian Financial System Code
b) International Financial System Code
c) Indian Fund Service Code
d) None of these
20. RTGS stands for ……………
a) Real Time Gross Settlement
b) Real Term Gross Settlement
c) Real Time Goal Settlement
d) Real Term Goal Settlement
21. SWIFT stands for ……………
a) Society for Worldwide Internet Financial Telecommunications
b) Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunications
c) Solution for Worldwide Internet Financial Telecommunications
d) Solution for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunications
22. CBS stands for ……
a) Code Banking Solutions
b) Core Banking Solutions
c) common Banking Solutions
d) Credit Banking Solutions
23. CTS refers to ………
a) Cheque Truncation System
b) Cheque Transaction System
c) Cheque Truncation Solution
d) Cheque Transaction Solution
24. Credit Information Bureau India Limited is India’s first credit rating agency which was incorporated in the year……
a) 1988
b) 2000
c) 2005
d) 1995
25. KYC refers to …………
a) Know Your Customer
b) Know Your Credit
c) Know Your City
d) Know Your Company
26. Delivery of financial services at affordable costs to the disadvantaged Low income segments of the society known as ………
a) Credit creation
b) financial exclusion
c) Financial Inclusion
d) consumer credit
27. RBI ACT was comes in to existence ……
a) 1934
b) 1935
c) 1948
d) 1945
28. Banking Regulation Act was comes into existence ………
a) 1940
b) 1934
c) 1956
d) 1949
29. A cheque bears a date earlier than the date on which it is presented to the bank it is called ………………
a) post-dated cheque
b) ante-dated cheque
c) outstation cheque
d) local cheque
30. A cheque bears a date which is yet to come it is called as …………
a) post-dated cheque
b) ante-dated cheque
c) crossed cheque
d) self cheque
31. If a cheque presented for payment after three months from the date of the cheque is known as …………
a) self cheque
b) mutilated cheque
c) local cheque
d) stale cheque
32. If a cheque is torn into two or more pieces and presented for payment it is called ……………
a) mutilated cheque
b) stale cheque
c) local cheque
d) self cheque
33. cancellation of cheque is known as ……………
a) crossing
b) opening of crossing
c) double crossing
d) general crossing
34. MICR refers to ………………
a) Magnetic Ink Character Recognition
b) Magnetic Information Character Recognition
c) Magnetic Ink Code Recognition
d) Magnetic Icon Character recognition
35. The person who seeks protection against a risk and to whom the insurance policy is issued is known as …………
a) insurer
b) customer
c) insured
d) creditor
36. Which principle means that make good or compensate the loss?
a) principle of contribution
b) principle of subrogation
c) principle of indemnity
d) principle of insurable interest
37. Uberrimae fidei means that ………………
a) principle of utmost good faith
b) principle of insurable interest
c) principle of indemnity
d) principle of subrogation
38. IRDA stands for …………
a) Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority
b) Industrial Development and development Authority
c) Insurance Restructuring and Development Authority
d) Insurance Refinancing and Development Authority
39. IRDA Act was passed in the year
a) 1948
b) 2000
c) 1999
d) 1956
40. Hull insurance related in the case of ………
a) building
b) life
c) machine
d) ship
41. In the case of life insurance HLV refers to …………
a) Home Legal Value
b) Human Life Value
c) Human Legal Value
d) House Length Value
42. ……… of a life policy means transferring the rights of the insured in respect of the policy to another one
a) Nomination
b) Consideration
c) Assignment
d) Agreement
43. Both assignment and nomination are possible in the case of ………… insurance policies
a) life
b) fire
c) marine
d) vehicle
44. ………… is the price paid by the insured for the risk undertaken by the insurer
a) Wages
b) premium
c) salary
d) compensation
45. …………… schemes are intended to insure a group of individual together
a) Insurance
b) wages
c) salary
d) group insurance
46. Group insurance provides insurance cover to a number of persons under a single policy called
a) master policy
b) single policy
c) group policy
d) marine policy
47. ……… means voluntary termination of the contract of life insurance by the policy holder
a) Key man insurance policy
b) surrender of policy
c) master policy
d) group insurance policy
48. In the case of group insurance the amount of premium is depends upon …………
a) Types of insurance
b) amount of premium
c) Terms of insurance
d) period of insurance
49. Marine Insurance Act comes into existence on ………………
a) 1963
b) 1988
c) 1948
d) 1976
50. In the case of marine insurance Hull means that …………
a) sinking of ship
b) loss of cargo
c) body of the ship
d) None of these
51. ……… denotes the act of throwing overboard a part of the ship’s cargo in order to reduce the weight of the vessel
a) Barratry
b) Jettison
c) assignment
d) seizure
52. Insurance Act was comes into existence on …………
a) 1956
b) 1948
c) 1938
d) 1988
53. Reinstatement policy is related in the case of which policy
a) Life insurance policy
b) Marine insurance policy
c) Group insurance policy
d) Fire insurance policy
54. A reinstatement policy is intended to cover damages or losses in respect of ………………
a) Fixed Assets
b) Vehicle
c) Ship
d) Life
55. Payment of compensation in the case of reinstatement policy is in the form of ………
a) Cash
b) Replacement
c) Cash or In kind
d) In Kind
56. Which policy is taken to cover loss on those goods which are lying in different places and the stock value will be continuously fluctuating ?
a) comprehensive policy
b) Floating policy
c) Declaration policy
d) average policy
57. In the case of motor insurance policy Form A is commonly known as ………
a) Act policy
b) package policy
c) Act and Package policy
d) liability policy
58. In the case of motor insurance policy Form B is commonly known as ………
a) Liability policy
b) Act policy
c) Package policy
d) Act and Package policy
59. When a particular property is insured with two insurers it is called …………..
a) property insurance
b) double insurance
c) single insurance
d) particular insurance
60. Personal accident insurance is highly attractive for ……………………
a) Individuals
b) Partners
c) Industrialists and businessmen
d) senior citizens
61. Which insurance covers the financial loss arising out of poor health condition or due to permanent disability
a) accident insurance
b) health insurance
c) life insurance
d) burglary insurance
62. ……… means selling of insurance policies and products through banking firms
a) Assurance
b) bancassurance
c) insurance
d) policy
63. Life Insurance Corporation of India was formed in the year …………
a) 1948
b) 1964
c) 1956
d) 1988
64. The General Insurance Corporation of India was formed in the year …………
a) 1973
b) 1948
c) 1956
d) 1984
65. Which risk may result in loss or gain ?
a) particular risk
b) pure risk
c) speculative risk
d) fundamental risk
66. General Insurance Corporation of India Act was formed in …………
a) 1973
b) 1963
c) 1972
d) 1962
67. ……… Risk are arises due to changes in the economic policies of the government.
a) speculative risk
b) particular risk
c) dynamic risk
d) financial risk
68. Risk which arises if there is no change in the economic policies of the government is
a) dynamic risk
b) static risk
c) particular risk
d) financial risk
69. In which types of risk origin and consequences of risk affect a large number of people
a) particular risk
b) static risk
c) fundamental risk
d) particular risk
70. Where a monetary loss is likely occur such risks are described as …………
a) monetary risk
b) financial risk
c) particular risk
d) fundamental risk
71. Principle of insurable interest means …………
a) Utmost good faith
b) subrogation
c) monetary interest
d) indemnity
72. The principle of subrogation is an extension of which principle ?
a) principle of indemnity
b) principle of utmost good faith
c) principle of insurable interest
d) principle of insurance
73. When a deposit of money is received by the banker, the banker becomes the …………?
a) creditor
b) debtor
c) receiver
d) customer
74. When a deposit of money is received by the banker, the customer becomes the ………… ?
a) debtor
b) creditor
c) customer
d) lender
75. The primary relationship between banker and customer is ……………
a) Giver and receiver
b) debtor and creditor
c) insurer
d) insured
76. A ……… is a person to whom the management of a particular property is entrusted for the exclusive benefit of a third party
a) customer
b) beneficiary
c) trustee
d) agent
77. Bankers Book Evidence Act was comes into existence ………
a) 1881
b) 1892
c) 1890
d) 1891
78. ………… is the right of a creditor to retain possession of the property belonging to the debtor until certain demands of the person in possession are satisfied.
a) Lien
b) Returning
c) Surrender
d) None of these
79. FDR stands for …………
a) Fixed Delivery Receipt
b) Fixed Deposit Receipt
c) Final Deposit Receipt
d) Final Delivery Receipt
80. In which year Negotiable Instrument Act was passed ………?
a) 1981
b) 1956
c) 1881
d) 1984